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Yendrrek Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

Slight doubt about few words in Johnny Nash's song

0 Hi, it may seem silly but I have a slight doubt about one expresion in one of Johnny Nash's songs. I'm thinking of "had me blind" in the example below. Is the person in the lyrics just saying that the dark clouds "owed" him, meaning that he belonged to those clouds or is it some kind of expresion which I don't understand? 02br
01u00Johnny Nash - “I CAN SEE CLEARLY NOW”02u02br
02br
00I can see clearly now, the rain is gone,02br
00I can see all obstacles in my way02br
00Gone are the dark clouds that 01b01i00had me blind02i02b02br
00It's gonna be a bright (bright), bright (bright)02br
00Sun-Shiny day02br
00It's gonna be a bright (bright), bright (bright)02br
00Sun-Shiny day0-
  

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7 Answers
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0 Think of it as "the dark clouds that were the reason I could not see clearly." 0-
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0 had me blind=blinded me0-
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0 This is how I think of it. However, I 'd like to understand the rule according to which these words were written. Can I say for example "The dark clouds have me blind"? Would it mean nothing or would it mean that "the dark clouds" own me as a blind man, that I (a blind man) belong to "the dark clouds"?02br
00Thanks0-
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0 blinded me - this sounds good.02br
00thanks0-
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0 What kind of tense is it? Past simple? I've never seen anything like that.0-
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0Yendrrek, "have" has many, many meanings beyond meaning to 01i00possess02i00 or to 01i00own02i00. 02br
02br
00If I say "You had me all confused," it means that you confused me. (Although, if I say "You have me confused with someone else," it means you thought I was another person.)0-
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0 Yes, I know that. I realise that "have" is an auxiliary verb and you use it in many, many tenses. I just want to understand (if "have" was not used here as a verb related with "posses", "own") why it wasn't written "had me blindED" (it would be Past Perfect tense, wouldn't it?)0-

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