Singulare tantum vs mass noun

Question

singulare tantum vs mass nounis there ever an instance in which a word is one but not the other?  also how is singulare / singularia and plurale / pluralia tantum pronounced?thanks

Clive · Accepted Answer

Hi,

Would you considera proper noun such an instance?

Clive

Anonymous · Answer

I would think a proper noun would qualify as both, no?

Clive · Answer

Hi,

Can you think of a proper noun that is a mass noun?

Clive

Anonymous · Answer

After carefully thinking, I have found that most, if not all (I can't think of an exception) proper nouns can be pluralized in the right circumstances. They can also take on an indefinite article. They can be counted as well. So plural nouns are not mass nouns, nor pluralia tantum.

I still don't see an instance where a word is one and not the other.

Clive · Answer

Hi,

Hmmm, maybe, maybe not.

Do you think I can argue like this?

When we say 'Everest', we think only of one thing.

When we say 'Atlantic', we think only of one thing.

When we say 'Shakespeare', we think only of one person.

When we say '***', we think of only one entity (although we may have different defintions for it).

Even when we say 'Tom', we know only one persion is being referred to. That's why we never seem to be able to find a satisfactory way to write the plural. Many Tom's does not seem right, and in my opinion nor does many Toms.

Let's not even talk about how to refer to many people who are each called Jones.

Clive

Anonymous · Answer

I think we can attach articles, numbers, and pluralize all of these if we wish.  They can all change throughout time, or our perception of them can change, and so we can compare two versions of them.  Do you agree with this?  Would you consider them mass nouns?

Clive · Answer

Hi,

I don't see eg 'Everest' or 'Tom' as mass nouns. Do you?

Clive

Singulare tantum vs mass noun

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