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Henry74 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

Since we've been married

Hello,

I was reading some old threads on since + present perfect vs. since + simple past, and I came up with an example of my own.
Cold you please tell me if my reasoning is correct?

a) I haven't slept with any other woman but my wife since we have been married.
b) I haven't slept with any other woman but my wife since we were married.

It seems to me that a) is the correct sentence. Because I'm still married to my wife, the active interpretation of were married is not availble, and its passive interpretation would actually change the meaning of the sentence.

Do you agree?

Thank you
H.

P.S.: Incidentally, I'm not sure if it had to be "any other women" rather than "any other woman". Are they both correct?
  

Top answer

Henry74 I'm not sure if it had to be "any other women" rather than "any other woman". Are they both correct? Both are correct.

— CalifJim

  • Henry74 I'm not sure if it had to be "any other women" rather than "any other woman".
  • Are they both correct?
  • Both are correct.
  • What you wrote first is preferable.
  • Henry74 since we have been married.
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2 Answers
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Henry74I'm not sure if it had to be "any other women" rather than "any other woman". Are they both correct?
Both are correct. What you wrote first is preferable.
Henry74since we have been married. ... since we were married.
Both mean the same thing, but it's more typical to use the second because since is normally fo
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I see. I guess my interpretation was a little misguided.

Thank you Jim
H.
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