since phenomenon

Question

Hello all.I´ve finally summarized my thoughts and I am ready to post a question which should be comprehensible.I understand this explanation found on http://thegrammarexchange.infopop.cc/eve/forums/a/tpc/f/340600179/m/9591084311 With the expression "it's been (length of time) since..." as in1) It's been a long time since I've swung a golf club2) It's been a long time since I've been to Augusta...the present perfect implies that the action is something that is repeatable. The speaker has probably swung a golf club or been to Augusta more than once.3) It's been a long time since I swung (not *swang) a golf club.4) It's been a long time since I went to Augusta.With a verb phrase that could be a repeatable action, the simple past (swung, went) could indicate a single event. The speaker in 3 may have swung a golf club more than once, but could also have done so only once. Similarly, with 4, "went to Augusta," the speaker could have gone there many times or only once. However I wonder whether I could use present perfect continuous tense after the "since" as well e.g.I.) It´s been a long time since I have been visiting (according to the explanation above - have visited would be ok) Australia.II.) It has been ages since I have been seeing her.And one last additional question :Would it be correct to say:III.) It has been ages since I haven´t  seen her? Thank you very much for any advice you can provide Tanner92

CalifJim · Accepted Answer

Tanner92I wonder whether I could use present perfect continuous tense after the "since" as well

Yes, you can. Sentences like that are relatively rare, but possible. They are rare only because we rarely need to express the corresponding idea.

It´s been a long time since I have been visiting Australia.

This implies that there are certain periods of time when I visit Australia on a regular basis, and that it has been a long time since one of these periods of time have occurred. It's quite an unusual sort of thing, so it won't come up much in most conversations. Most people would just conflate it into "... since I (have) visited Australia" as there is not much point in being so very precise that it becomes confusing for the listener.

There may be other opinions on the interpretation of this sentence, so stay tuned for more replies.

Tanner92II.) It has been ages since I have been seeing her.

As above. Not very useful. I would avoid it.

Tanner92Would it be correct to say:III.) It has been ages since I haven´t seen her?

Oof! No. You can't put a time stamp on something that hasn't happened. This is way too confusing even to attempt an interpretation of what it might mean.

CJ

Tanner92 · Answer

Thank you, CJ. Let me ask you a few more question please.

1)

1) It's been a long time since I've swung a golf club

2) It's been a long time since I've been to Augusta

...the present perfect implies that the action is something that is repeatable. The speaker has probably swung a golf club or been to Augusta more than once.

+

It´s been a long time since I have been visiting Australia.

This implies that there are certain periods of time when I visit Australia on a regular basis, and that it has been a long time since one of these periods of time have occurred.

Then, what is the difference between present perfect and present perfect continuous here? It seems to me that your explanation of present perfect continuous doesn´t differ that much from the source´s explanation of why one could use present perfect simple.

2)

Let me quote you:

This implies that there are certain periods of time when I visit Australia on a regular basis, and that it has been a long time since one of these periods of time have occurred.

Isn´t this case where I should use past simple only? I would consider it the single action which doesn´t repeat. See here:
P.S. I definitely don´t wanna seem to be a grammar **** - I am just trying to understand what lead you to use present perfect in this sentence as "rules" say otherwise.

With verbs that denote a single, non-repeatable action, the present perfect is less natural. It would be odd to say

-It's been a long time since they've built their house

-It's been six years since I've moved to this apartment

-It's been two years since my dog has died

CalifJim · Answer

I'm not familiar with the explanation given in the first part of "1" in your post, so I can't really comment on it. That is, I don't see how being repeatable comes into any of this.

However, in analyzing my remarks on "since I have been visiting" note that being repeatable and actually repeating are two different concepts.

Tanner92Isn´t this case where I should use past simple only? (regarding "since one of these periods have occurred")

Obviously I don't think so.

Tanner92 I definitely don´t wanna seem to be a grammar ****

Too late.

Tanner92It would be odd to say

-It's been a long time since they've built their house

-It's been six years since I've moved to this apartment

-It's been two years since my dog has died

... because they aren't repeatable, according to your quoted "rule". But every one of these examples has a mention of a definite event that (we are to assume) actually happened. They built their house. I moved to this apartment. My dog died.

Now you want to add "it has been a long time since one of these periods of time have occurred" as a case where "have occurred" is supposed to be 'wrong' and "occurred" is supposed to be 'right' because it follows this "rule" you found somewhere.

But this is hypothetical. I'm speaking abstractly about the possibility of such time periods occurring, thus providing a reason for using the continuous aspect. Nothing definite has actually happened. And the same situation (of wondering if the continuous aspect should be used) can come up again and again in hundreds of cases that writers may encounter. I don't see why that would be non-repeatable (if the "non-repeatable rule" works at all).

CJ

since phenomenon

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