Very good question. I can see why this could be confusing. "Since then" can refer to the past all the way up to the present, which WOULD require the present perfect tense.
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cho7712Since then, she noticed that he seemed pale. ...And what case is that? I don't see any particular characteristics of the sentence by which to identify it as a certain 'case'. Is it simply that the sentence starts with 'since then'? I've never heard o
I was taught to use the perfect tense in the main clause in the case above.
cho7712What I meant was the general rule that says use the perfect tense after the temporal phrase introduced by since.I think we've found a situation where the general rule does not apply, or at least where it doesn't seem objectionable to violate the rule. Maybe we should keep in mind that the simple past often substitutes for the past perfect, especially
cho7712'Since then, she noticed that he seemed pale. The symptoms had become worse and...'.I'm confused also. I understand that an event expressed in the past perfect precedes another put in the simple past. But here, the chronology of tenses seems to be reversed.
AnonymousI understand that an event expressed in the past perfect precedes another put in the simple past.True. She noticed that the symptoms had become worse.
CalifJimIt just means "at some time (unspecified) after that", meaning after the long walk. In this context "since then" means little more than "later".Thank you for the answer.