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Magic79 Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

since 10 am.

0Holaaa everyone!02br
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00I heard a native speaker of American English say:02br
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00A "I 01u00did not go02u00 there since 10 am."02br
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00I told him that he should have used the present perfect:02br
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00B "I 01u00have not gone02u00 there since 10 am."02br
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00Do native speakers find the first sentence palatable? Is it good English? I am starting to feel that it is common usage to use A.0-
  

Top answer

0Hello Magic 7902br 02br 00As far as I know Americans prefer using the simple past instead of present perfect, at least that's what they did when I was in New York and Boston. I was taught that the correct form with since and for is the present perfect, but if you are in the US and say the sentence A it is good as well 050010id5

  • 0Hello Magic 7902br 02br 00As far as I know Americans prefer using the simple past instead of present perfect, at least that's what they did when I was in New York and Boston.
  • I was taught that the correct form with since and for is the present perfect, but if you are in the US and say the sentence A it is good as well 050010id5
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8 Answers
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0Hello Magic 7902br
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00As far as I know Americans prefer using the simple past instead of present perfect, at least that's what they did when I was in New York and Boston. I was taught that the correct form with since and for is the present perfect, but if you are in the US and say the sentence A it is good as well 050010id5
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0My opinion is that in a sentence containing something such as "since 10 a.m." you will hear Americans both the simple past tense and the present perfect. However, you'll hear the present perfect used more frequently in more formal language in the US.02br
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00I read this sentence, written by a Brit, the other day: 02br
00"01i00My job 01u00
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1font00Hi, Yankee. Is it true of all "since" expressions. 02font02br
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00I ran into him at 10 o'clock this morning just before the board meeting; I ---- him since.02br
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00A) will not have seen B) didn't see C) haven't seen 02br
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00D) hadn't seen E) couldn't see02br
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Yankee12cite10"11i10My job 11u10has gone12u10 because my boss 11u10has fired12u10 me.12i10" 12blockquote
10That sounds alien to me as a Brit. I would say: "01i00I lost my job02i00" or "01i00My boss fired me0
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1i00My job 01u00has gone02u00 because my boss 01u00has fired02u00 me.02i02br
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00This sentence does not make sense because it is obvious that if your boss fired you, your job would be gone. It goes without saying.0-
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0 Hi Bokeh and Trex02br
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00Yes, I agree that a sentence such as "I lost my job" would be the most likely or typical. I also found the original sentence odd. My focus was on the use of the present perfect in this case. What do you think of the first half as a stand-alone sentence? "My job has gone." That part sounded especially odd to me.02br
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0Thank you Franecsca, Yankee, and the rest of the gang.02br
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00You deserve an A for answering the questoin 050010id5
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0 “My job has gone” sounds odd, and may even be wrong, because the writer was describing the status of his or her job, and that status didn’t change; it remained steady since he had been fired, so it’s almost like a “general truth” that requires a simple present tense. 02br
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00But I’m uncertain. I’m speculating that perhaps one's state of employment is not like a “general

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