0 01i01font001: I'm not a huge fan of him.02br 00 2: I'm not a huge fan of his.02br 02br 02font02i01font00Which is correct? Or are they both correct?02font01i01font02br 02font02i0-
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0" his " 0-
— Welkins2139
0" his " 0-
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0Hi Taka,02br 02br 01i01font001: I'm not a huge fan of him.02br 002: I'm not a huge fan of his.02font02i02br 02br 00#2 is certainly more common, but I wouldn't say #1 is wrong. We say things like 'I'm not a huge fan of soccer 01i00(noun).02i00'02br 02br
0I'd say the "of his" form was more usual in BrE too.02br 02br 00The "of him" form seems to suit certain contexts:02br 02br 001. I'm not a huge fan of him 01i00as an actor02i00; but...02br 02br 002. A fan of 01i00him02i00? Whatever gave you that impression? I'm a big fan of X, and an even bi
By the way, in our text book, there is a sentence like this: She gave me a photo of her, ,,,,,,,,,,,,,,a photo of me. Some of us think it is a mistake of printing but it seems it's a way that American used to say. In our new programme, we teach at the same time B.E and A M..Are these sentences correct?
She gave me a photo of her, ,,,,,,,,,,,,,,a photo of me.
I'd say She gave me a photo of herself and a photo of me. We also often say, with this same meaning, She gave me her photo or My passport has my photo.
MrPedanticI'd say the "of his" form was more usual in BrE too.
Was more usual? What about nowadays? Also, What is the grammatical justification for using the possesive form his? Shouldn't it be like this? I'm a huge fan of him. > I'm a huge fan of Paul. I'm a huge fan of his. > I'm a huge fan of Paul's