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Jackson6612 Posted 19 years ago
Grammar
Shouldn't ''to'' be used after ''given'' in ''the prominence...''?
1 font 00 Merriam-Webster's Collegiate Dictionary: 02 font 02 br
02 br
01 b 01 i 01 font 01 sup 00 2 02 sup 00 accent: 02 font 02 i 02 b 02 br
02 br
01 font 00 an articulative effort giving prominence to one syllable over adjacent syllables; also: the prominence thus given a syllable. 02 font 02 br
02 br
01 font 02 font 02 br
02 br
00 Shouldn't 01 b 01 i 00 to 02 i 02 b 00 be used after 01 b 01 i 00 given 02 i 02 b 00 in 01 b 01 i 00 the prominence thus given a syllable 02 i 02 b 00 ? 0-
02 br
01 b 01 i 01 font 01 sup 00 2 02 sup 00 accent: 02 font 02 i 02 b 02 br
02 br
01 font 00 an articulative effort giving prominence to one syllable over adjacent syllables; also: the prominence thus given a syllable. 02 font 02 br
02 br
01 font 02 font 02 br
02 br
00 Shouldn't 01 b 01 i 00 to 02 i 02 b 00 be used after 01 b 01 i 00 given 02 i 02 b 00 in 01 b 01 i 00 the prominence thus given a syllable 02 i 02 b 00 ? 0-
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