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NL888 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar
Should "we have to be...before" be "we had to be...before"?
Because "before" indicates the past.
Context:
About 40,000 Syrians fled to Iraq in the last two weeks of August, and 13,000 arrived in Lebanon in the past week. Over all, close to 5,000 Syrians are leaving every day.
“It clearly demonstrates that we are witnessing a conflict in constant escalation,” Mr. Guterres said. “We have to be prepared for things to get much worse before, eventually, they start to get better.”
Context:
About 40,000 Syrians fled to Iraq in the last two weeks of August, and 13,000 arrived in Lebanon in the past week. Over all, close to 5,000 Syrians are leaving every day.
“It clearly demonstrates that we are witnessing a conflict in constant escalation,” Mr. Guterres said. “We have to be prepared for things to get much worse before, eventually, they start to get better.”
Top answer
NL888 Because "before" indicates the past. Actually, the having to be prepared is in the present or future, and the starting to get better is in the future. 'Had to be' is incorrect.
- NL888 Because "before" indicates the past.
- Actually, the having to be prepared is in the present or future, and the starting to get better is in the future.
- 'Had to be' is incorrect.
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2 Answers
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NL888Because "before" indicates the past.Actually, the having to be prepared is in the present or future, and the starting to get better is in the future.
'Had to be' is incorrect.
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But you haven't used "before" in your explanation. That is what has confused me.
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