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Anglista2008 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Should "the" be omitted here?

Howdy,

1. One of my books gives some examples about 'the' in connection with 'centuries' Have a look at this example:
  • in previous centuries
  • in centuries gone by
  • for centuries
The book says that if 'centuries' are unspecific, then we can skip the definite article... but the second example seems to be a bit odd, I mean, don't we KNOW exactly and specifically which centuries we're talking about when saying in centuries gone by ?

2. Is it OK to say:
  • in the last century
or does it sound unnatural? I know that last century is OK, but dunno if we can add 'in the'

3. Why is it that we don't say the last century but simply last century ?

Cheers!
  

Top answer

anglista2008 book says that if 'centuries' are unspecific, then we can skip the definite article... but the second example seems to be a bit odd, I mean, don't we KNOW exactly and specifically which centuries we're talking about when saying in centuries gone by ? Maybe not.

  • anglista2008 book says that if 'centuries' are unspecific, then we can skip the definite article...
  • but the second example seems to be a bit odd, I mean, don't we KNOW exactly and specifically which centuries we're talking about when saying in centuries gone by ?
  • Maybe not.
  • It may not include all the past centuries.
  • anglista2008 3.
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5 Answers
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anglista2008book says that if 'centuries' are unspecific, then we can skip the definite article... but the second example seems to be a bit odd, I mean, don't we KNOW exactly and specifically which centuries we're talking about when saying in centuries gone by ?
Maybe not. It may not include all the past centuries.
anglista2008
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the explanation given in the book is that 'last' without the definite article means previous while if we add 'the' then it means final

what do you think? is that so?
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anglista20081. One of my books gives some examples about 'the' in connection with 'centuries' Have a look at this example:

in previous centuries
in centuries gone by
for centuries

The book says that if 'centuries' are unspecific, then we can skip the definite article... but the second example seems to be a bit odd, I mean, don't we KNOW exactly a
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anglista2008the second example seems to be a bit odd, I mean, don't we KNOW exactly and specifically which centuries we're talking about when saying in centuries gone by ?
Hopefully, we always know what we're talking about when we speak! But this is a different sort of thing.

the centuries gone by is a definite plural, which, as Philip already
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gosh! THANK YOU!!! so much! it's such a great answer

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