0
Anonymous Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

Should have to

Why are two modals used in a sentence when either can do to convey the meaning? For example:
You should have to take the consequences.
What does this add? Does the meaning stay the same if either should or have to is used?
  

Top answer

Anonymous Why are two modals used in a sentence when either can do to convey the meaning? I think there is a greater meaning in your example: You should have to take the consequences = It would be right and appropriate if you were required to take the consequences.

  • Anonymous Why are two modals used in a sentence when either can do to convey the meaning?
  • I think there is a greater meaning in your example: You should have to take the consequences = It would be right and appropriate if you were required to take the consequences.
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

2 Answers
0
AnonymousWhy are two modals used in a sentence when either can do to convey the meaning?
I think there is a greater meaning in your example:

You should have to take the consequences = It would be right and appropriate if you were required to take the consequences.
0
While 'have to' often conveys meaning similar to those conveyed by a modal, it is not a modal itself.

Related Questions