Should have recognized...
1). It's good that the Government should have recognized the opportunity and the obligations so clearly.
2). It's good that the Government have recognized the opportunity and the obligations so clearly.
Do the sentences mean pretty much the same or does 'should' indicate that it was advisable to the Government to make the recognition? The reason I'm asking is because of my grammar book says 'should' simple stresses an emotion of the speaker.
Thanks, teachers, in advance as always!
Aaron
Top answer
I see this "should" as having a "subjunctive-like" role (approximately similar to "If I should go" ~ "If I go"). The exact effect of "should" on the meaning of your sentence is quite hard to pin down. I feel that it slightly distances the speaker from the assertion that the Government have recognised the opportunity and obligations.
- I see this "should" as having a "subjunctive-like" role (approximately similar to "If I should go" ~ "If I go").
- The exact effect of "should" on the meaning of your sentence is quite hard to pin down.
- I feel that it slightly distances the speaker from the assertion that the Government have recognised the opportunity and obligations.
- On the other hand, the idea that it suggests the speaker's emotional involvement seems to also have some validity.
- In any case, the difference is subtle.
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I see this "should" as having a "subjunctive-like" role (approximately similar to "If I should go" ~ "If I go"). The exact effect of "should" on the meaning of your sentence is quite hard to pin down. I feel that it slightly distances the speaker from the assertion that the Government have recognised the opportunity and obligations. On the other hand, the idea that it suggests the speaker's em
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