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NL888 Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

Should "for some supernatural being" be "by some supernatural being"?

Context:

The consequences of quantum mechanics for an understanding of the meaning of the universe have been the subject
of much speculation over the last eighty years. Einstein himself, though he played an important role in the early development of quantum mechanics, initially rejected the concept of uncertainty, famously remarking, "God does not play dice."
The theist might reply that the game would not appear to be dice to God, even if it does to us. As Hawking points out,
"We could still imagine that there is a set of laws that determines events completely for some supernatural being, who
could observe the present state of the universe without disturbing it."'
  

Top answer

Hawking envisages a set of completely deterministic laws that were designed by a supernatural being. This being knows the outcome of every event, and can observe the universe without changing it.

  • Hawking envisages a set of completely deterministic laws that were designed by a supernatural being.
  • This being knows the outcome of every event, and can observe the universe without changing it.
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4 Answers
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Hawking envisages a set of completely deterministic laws that were designed by a supernatural being.
This being knows the outcome of every event, and can observe the universe without changing it.
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Thanks.
But you haven't answered my question: should for be by there?
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NL888should for be by there?
I don't think so. I understand it to mean that, unlike us, the supernatural being can observe and understand the movements of particles because there are laws governing them that make sense to him, not that he is controlling the particles by those laws.
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NL888should for be by there?
The original by Hawking is grammatically correct and I think he was very careful in saying exactly what he meant.

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