Hello everyone. I would like to know if anyone could please help me with this grammar doubt.
Here are two sentences:
- "There is nothing but flowers as far as the eye can see."
- "There is nothing but flowers for as far as the eye can see."
The questions are: does it make any difference in using "for" or not? Is one sentence more correct than the other? If so, which one and why?
I have seen similar sentences in which "for" was not used, but I have also heard the opposite.
Thank you in advance.
Both sentences are OK. No real difference.
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.