She should have died hereafter

Question

Hello,I thought the opening line of Macbeth's famous 'Tomorrow, tomorrow, and tomorrow' monologue – She shoud have died hereafer– just meant what it said: she shoud have died later ~ I would have preferred/It would have been better if she died later.But I have found a site that has Shakespeare translated into modern English, and that line reads- She would have died later anyway.Is this correct? If so, how does "She shoud have" become "She would have"?This seems to call into question my interpretation of the opening three lines:She should have died hereafterThere would have been a time for such a wordTomorrow, tomorrow, and tomorrowI thought these meant "I wish she weren't dead. We would have had tomorrows ahead of us," wherein "word" refers to Tomorrow.Instead the site gives as paraphrase: "She would have died later anyway. The news was bound to come someday," wherein "word" means "word of her death".I'm confused. Have I always misunderstood it?Thank youH.

GPY · Accepted Answer

I suppose "should" here is the past tense of "shall" in sense 2c at http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/should, "used as an auxiliary to indicate certainty or inevitability". This is a slightly old-fashioned or formal-sounding use. In modern English it has mostly been supplanted by "will"/"would".

Henry74 · Answer

Thank you, GPY. I wasn't aware of the different nuances of "shall".

H.

CalifJim · Answer

Henry74how does "She should have" become "She would have"?

The farther back in history you go, the more inscrutable the relationship between should and would can become. When you get as far back as Shakespeare, you'll find all kinds of examples where his should would be our (modern) would. There are still remnants of this in modern English, as in I should like to see him try to do that.

Note that the present tense forms are shall and will, and these are still nearly interchangeable in modern English. It is probably should that has changed the most over the centuries.

CJ

Henry74 · Answer

CalifJimI should like to see him try to do that.

If I understand it correctly, that could be paraphrased as "I would really/certainly like to see him....", correct?

This reminds of something I've been hearing on Downton Abbey:
- Is Mr. X upstairs?
- I should think so

or just sentences that open with
- I should think...

Those too could be re-worded as "I would certainly think..." as per meaning of 'shall' 2c above, right?

Thank you
H.

GPY · Answer

Henry74This reminds of something I've been hearing on Downton Abbey:- Is Mr. X upstairs?- I should think soor just sentences that open with- I should think...Those too could be re-worded as "I would certainly think..." as per meaning of 'shall' 2c above, right?

I would classify this use of "I should think..." as idiomatic (at least in BrE). It is quite hard to identify exactly what the "should" component is adding. In some contexts it seems to add emphasis or certainty (e.g. indignant "I should think so!"), whereas in other contexts it seems to be doing not very much, or even making the statement seem vaguer or more casual ("I should think the bus will be here in a few minutes").

In Downtown Abbey, though, "should" might be inserted just to make the dialogue seem more upper-class or old-fashioned.

Henry74 · Answer

I see. Things are never easy for the poor learner, are they?

H.

CalifJim · Answer

Henry74Those too could be re-worded as "I would certainly think..." as per meaning of 'shall' 2c above, right?

Your paraphrase seems fine to me, but a simple "I would think so" also works. I'm not so sure that definition 2c comes into it. Recall that another meaning of should revolves around the concept of expectation, so another paraphrase of "I should think so" is "I (certainly) expect so".

— Is Carson downstairs?
— I should think so. (slight questioning intonation) ~ I expect so. ~ He should be, at this hour. ~ That's usually where he is, so I suppose that's where he is. ~ That is to be expected.

Shading into the concept of advice that goes with "should":

— Will Lady Margaret be attending the festival dinner?
— I should think so. (emphatic intonation) ~ I can't imagine her not attending; it would be a breach of good taste for her to be absent from this event. ~ You must be mad to ask; of course she will attend.

CJ

An0nymous · Answer

This needs to be looked at in view of everything that's happened thus far. Macbeth's tyranny has turned his country against him. In the previous scene he notes that some of his thanes have deserted him. The castle is surrounded, his forces are outnumbered, only a handful of his most stalwart supporters are still with him, and he knows the situation is hopeless.

So in this context the lines, Seyton: The queen, my lord, is dead. Macbeth: She should have died hereafter; there would have been a time for such a word., mean: She should have died later. Then the situation (which is hopeless) would be very appropriate for such a word (dead). Then he launches into his famous "tomorrow" soliloquy, which is appropriate to the hopelessness of his situation.

Henry74 · Answer

CalifJimRecall that another meaning of should revolves around the concept of expectation, so another paraphrase of "I should think so" is "I (certainly) expect so"

Right. That was a piece of the puzzle that I was missing, or had forgotten.
Now that you've mentioned it, though, I think I can see what you mean. E.g.
- She should be here by now.

Thank you Jim
H.

Henry74 · Answer

An0nymousShe should have died later. Then the situation (which is hopeless) would be very appropriate for such a word (dead)

Interesting interpretation An0n. Thank you.

H.

She should have died hereafter

Top answer

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

Related Questions