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Kyurkchiyski Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

Sentence with “want”

May I say:
It has made me not to want to learn.
Or how should say it grammatically right?
  

Top answer

It has made me to not want to learn. These are better: It has discouraged me from learning It has suppressed (dampened) my desire to learn.

— AlpheccaStars

  • It has made me to not want to learn.
  • These are better: It has discouraged me from learning It has suppressed (dampened) my desire to learn.
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12 Answers
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It has made me to not want to learn.

These are better:
It has discouraged me from learning
It has suppressed (dampened) my desire to learn.
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AlpheccaStarsIt has made me to not want to learn.
That doesn't sound right to me ... did you type it as you intended?
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I know it sounds odd - quite awkward in fact. That's why I made the other suggestions.
But I think it is grammatically OK.
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AlpheccaStarsI know it sounds odd - quite awkward in fact. That's why I made the other suggestions.But I think it is grammatically OK.
I still try not to split infinitives. Old habits!
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PhilipI still try not to split infinitives. Old habits!
The old advice on split infinitives is not to be trusted. It's a fallacy based on the fact that in Latin grammar, the infinitive was one word and impossible to split. Strict English grammarians of the 19th century tried to fit the grammar of English into a Latin model, believing that Latin was the paragon
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AlpheccaStarsI know it sounds odd - quite awkward in fact. That's why I made the other suggestions.But I think it is grammatically OK.
For me, the nearest acceptable version (albeit perhaps not the most elegant way of saying it) is "It has made me not want to learn". For me, "It has made me to not want to learn" is ungrammatical. Is it possible there are AmE/B
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Ok, If I have to say it without “not” I’ll say: It has made me want to learn. So, if I have to say it with “not”, I just have to put “not” before want, so it becomes: It has made me not want to learn.
We don't put “to”, because the verb pattern for “make” (VERB + object + inf) doesn't requires “to”.
Am I right?
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My two cents: Often times, questions posted here for help are awkwardly constructed, and no matter how much effort volunteers spend on fixing the less-than-ideal structures, the awkwardness may still exists. I believe this is the case. That's my observation. There are always alternative ways of expressing the equivalent meaning as the those suggested. Here is another one: It's made me lose the de
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