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LeGion12359 Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

Sentence

I am presenting you my second essay written without using the rote-learning technique.
If we convert the above non-finite phrase 'written without using a rote learning technique' into a finite one,then which would be its correct form:
a) which is written without using the rote-learning technique?
b) which has been written without using the rote-learning technique?
c)both?
  

Top answer

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— BarbaraPA

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5 Answers
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Either "has been" or "was."
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BarbaraPAEither "has been" or "was."
Can I say that phrase thus without changing its meaning:
to be written without using the rote-learning technique?
and
to have been written without using the rote-learning technique?
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"to be written" means that it will be in the future. You can't turn in an essay that will be written in the future.
"to have been written" is not correct. It's a counter-factual past situation.

The essay was to have been written in French, but you wrote it in English.
Jim was to have been picked up at the airport, but now he's coming by train instead.
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BarbaraPA"to be written" means that it will be in the future. You can't turn in an essay that will be written in the future. "to have been written" is not correct. It's a counter-factual past situation.The essay was to have been written in French, but you wrote it in English.Jim was to have been picked up at the airport, but now he's coming by train instead.
O
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In my opinion, yes. You can rewrite with no change in meaning.
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