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Jackson6612 Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Self-contradicting definitions of "demean"

Hi

In the M-W's Col. Dic. "demean" appears as two enteries: demean1 (trans. v.) and demean2 (trans. v.).

demean1:
to conduct or behave (oneself) usually in a proper manner

demean2:
to lower in character, status, or reputation

Both enteries has totally contradicting meanings. Why is so? Where did such a weird twist occured in the etymology of "demean"?

Please guide me. Thanks.
  

Top answer

Why do we 'chop down' a tree and then 'chop it up'? Why do we 'cleave' to our mother's bosom and then 'cleave' our own path away from parental control? Words have tortuous histories.

— Mister Micawber

  • Why do we 'chop down' a tree and then 'chop it up'?
  • Why do we 'cleave' to our mother's bosom and then 'cleave' our own path away from parental control?
  • Words have tortuous histories.
  • However, in this case you can ignore #1.
  • It is rarely if ever used now.
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3 Answers
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Why do we 'chop down' a tree and then 'chop it up'? Why do we 'cleave' to our mother's bosom and then 'cleave' our own path away from parental control? Words have tortuous histories.

However, in this case you can ignore #1. It is rarely if ever used now.
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Thanks for the good reply, Mr Micawber.
Mister MicawberHowever, in this case you can ignore #1. It is rarely if ever used now.
How does "if ever" add to the rest of meaning of the sentence and how would its not being there affect the meaning? What't the reason for its use? Please guide me. Thanks.
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