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Chingutee Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
"[...] seems to them to be [...]" -- is this correct grammar?
I came across this sentence from an article that I was reading earlier:
"And an English document from the year 900 seems to them to be in a foreign language."
The portion of the sentence that is throwing me off is "seems to them to be". Is this correct grammar? If not, why not?
And how should the sentence be written for it to be proper and correct?
I'd personally write it as: "To them, an English document from the year 900 seems to be in a foreign language". But even though that flows better to my ear, I'm still thinking that my placement of "to them" is still incorrect. I just can't remember why.
Please let me know. Thank you in advance.
"And an English document from the year 900 seems to them to be in a foreign language."
The portion of the sentence that is throwing me off is "seems to them to be". Is this correct grammar? If not, why not?
And how should the sentence be written for it to be proper and correct?
I'd personally write it as: "To them, an English document from the year 900 seems to be in a foreign language". But even though that flows better to my ear, I'm still thinking that my placement of "to them" is still incorrect. I just can't remember why.
Please let me know. Thank you in advance.
Top answer
" The portion of the sentence that is throwing me off is "seems to them to be". Is this correct grammar? If not, why not?
- " The portion of the sentence that is throwing me off is "seems to them to be".
- Is this correct grammar?
- If not, why not?
- It seems to me to be grammatically correct..
- As to the why , there is simply nothing wrong with it.
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4 Answers
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chingutee"And an English document from the year 900 seems to them to be in a foreign language." The portion of the sentence that is throwing me off is "seems to them to be". Is this correct grammar? If not, why not?It seems to me to be grammatically correct.. As to the why, there is simply nothing wrong with it.
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Hello, and welcome to the forums.
It is correct as is. In your version, you place more emphasis on "to them" by setting it off from the rest of the sentence.
It is correct as is. In your version, you place more emphasis on "to them" by setting it off from the rest of the sentence.
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fivejedjon: It seems to me to be grammatically correct.. As to the why, there is simply nothing wrong with it.It just seemed very awkward to me, but I couldn't explain why, and now I know it's just personal aesthetic, lol. Thank you for your feedback.
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ozzourtiHello, and welcome to the forums.It is correct as is. In your version, you place more emphasis on "to them" by setting it off from the rest of the sentence.Thank you for your feedback and for the welcome, I appreciate your help.
So would my version be correct as well, or did I make the sentence incorrect by moving "to them"? I'm kind of assum
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