"seems to be better to me" vs "seems better to me"

Question

Hi.Please tell me which one of the sentences below is correct.If both are correct then if you would please explain your answer a bit.1) It seems to be better to me.2) it seems better to me.Thanks in advance.

CalifJim · Accepted Answer

MIG1) It seems to be better to me.2) it seems better to me.

"seems to be" is a substitute for "is", to show that we're talking about appearance rather than reality. You can have an adjective in either case.

He [is / seems to be] tall.
They [are / seem to be] rich.
She [is / seems to be] worried.

I can't think of a case where the "to be" part of "seems to be" can't be dropped before an adjective, and it is probably dropped more often than it is kept.

He seems tall. They seem rich. She seems worried.

When a noun follows, the "to be" is less likely to be dropped, though it can be. Personally, I don't drop "to be" in these cases. I suppose the dropping "to be" in these cases sounds a little old-fashioned and/or literary to me.

He seems to be a talented artist. They seem to be foreigners. She seems to be a clever girl.

CJ

MIG · Answer

As always, thank you very much CalifJim, for your kind and detailed answer.

"seems to be better to me" vs "seems better to me"

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