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Peter1107 Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

(seem) express sometime a state of being

I have this question in my mind that haven't been answered. Sometimes when reading a forum messages, I always encountered people using "seem to be" in their sentence. Well, here is my question, if "seem" is sometimes a state of being and I know "to be" is also a state of being (I guess) then why integrating the two? I know it can be infinitive, but does it seem correct? I'm just a student starting to learn English grammar and I need a brief explanation. Thanks!
  

Top answer

When people speak a language, any language, they seldom think of a reason why they say something unless, perhaps, they are linguists. If you don't like the to be , you can often omit it without changing the intended meaning: It seems [to be] very easy. CB

— Cool Breeze

  • When people speak a language, any language, they seldom think of a reason why they say something unless, perhaps, they are linguists.
  • If you don't like the to be , you can often omit it without changing the intended meaning: It seems [to be] very easy.
  • CB
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1 Answers
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When people speak a language, any language, they seldom think of a reason why they say something unless, perhaps, they are linguists. If you don't like the to be, you can often omit it without changing the intended meaning:

It seems [to be] very easy.

CB
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