Does the bold part of the following sentence imply "the argument that in spite of the advertisements of the existence of freedom in the contemporary world, there is not actually any freedom in that meaning"? I hope you can help me with it
Text:
See Clare Hemmings's ‘Invoking Affect: Cultural Theory and the Ontological Turn’ for a very good survey of the recent turn to affect in cultural theory as well as a cogent argument for scepticism in the face of the claims of liberation being made in its name (Art and Psychoanalysis by Maria Walsh).
catttt Does the bold part of the following sentence imply "the argument that in spite of the advertisements of the existence of freedom in the contemporary world, there is not actually any freedom in that meaning"? I'd say "sort of" but not exactly. I read it thus: a cogent argument for s k epticism in the face of the claims of liberation being made in its name a persuasive assertion that it might be wise to doubt the claims that the recent turn to affect is liberating for cultural theorists CJ
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cattttDoes the bold part of the following sentence imply "the argument that in spite of the advertisements of the existence of freedom in the contemporary world, there is not actually any freedom in that meaning"?
I'd say "sort of" but not exactly. I read it thus:
a cogent argument for skepticism in the face of