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Anonymous Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

Same meaning?

1. The earthquake was so strong that it caused a lot of damage near its epicenter.
2. The earthquake was strong enough to cause damage near its epicenter.
Do they have the same meaning?
  

Top answer

They are similar in meaning, but not the same. The first places much greater emphasis on the strength of the earthquake and the extent of the damage than does the second. The second sentence might be true if the damage were only minor.

— Blue Jay

  • They are similar in meaning, but not the same.
  • The first places much greater emphasis on the strength of the earthquake and the extent of the damage than does the second.
  • The second sentence might be true if the damage were only minor.
  • If that were the situation being described it would not match the first sentence.
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3 Answers
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They are similar in meaning, but not the same. The first places much greater emphasis on the strength of the earthquake and the extent of the damage than does the second.
The second sentence might be true if the damage were only minor. If that were the situation being described it would not match the first sentence.
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If I place 'a lot of' before 'damage' in the second, can I say that they have the same meaning?
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