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Achamo Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

S + have + sb + p.p.?

"I'll have you moved to another room right away."

I found the sentence in a text book. I wonder why the word "moved" is used there.

I know these 2 grammars.

eg1. I'll have her email you ( S + have + sb + V ).

eg2. I had my hair cut ( S + have + sth + p.p.).

Why is "moved" used there even though the object is a person? Is that "you" treated as a thing like eg2?

Thank you for your help.
  

Top answer

Achamo Is that "you" treated as a thing like eg2? Yes. Exactly.

— Avangi

  • Achamo Is that "you" treated as a thing like eg2?
  • Yes.
  • Exactly.
  • "
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6 Answers
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AchamoIs that "you" treated as a thing like eg2?
Yes. Exactly.
Same structure as "I'll have you arrested."
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AchamoI'll have you moved
It's just the passive form of I'll have someone move you, just as I had my hair cut is the passive form of I had someone cut my hair.

CJ
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Dear Avangi,

Was I correct? Thank you for your reply and a great example. I have learned. Emotion: smile

Dear CalifJim,
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CalifJimIt's just the passive form of I'll have someone move you
I've been having a little trouble getting my head around this.

Wouldn't the passive technically be "I'll have you be moved?" We're talking about a passive infinitive, right?

(I'm not suggesting that anyone should say it that way. I'm just trying to understand the idea.)
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AvangiWouldn't the passive technically be "I'll have you be moved?" We're talking about a passive infinitive, right?
Yes. "Bare infinitive". I was speaking loosely. I was focusing on the semantic effect rather than the grammar. Grammatically, I suppose you'd say that after causative have, dropping be is required.

*I'll have [
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