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Jackson6612 Posted 16 years ago
Linguistics Studies

Rules of English language

The mathematical and scientific facts, laws, or principles are dictated by the nature. We, humans, only discover them and find relations between them - how one affects the other. This is the essence of objectiveness of scientific approach where one couldn't incorporate one's own personal beliefs and prejudices in one's findings.

It's true that almost all the languages around the world share some similarities between them. I haven't ever consulted any grammar book on my native language except when they forced me to memorize some of it in the schooldays. That's why it's called the native tongue. I remember once someone, I believe it was Amy (Yankee), who told me that a preposition is always followed by a noun phrase. This a kind of rule in English language. Who made this rule? Why can't one break this rule? A language is not an invention of a single individual - it's a colllective ownership. I'm sure there would be many other rules of this kind and surely I have practiced them infinite times. In general, how such rules come into being? Please do list some of them. I'm not a linguist, so I request you to keep your approach simple and straightforward. Thank you.

preposition
a function word that typically combines with a noun phrase to form a phrase which usually expresses a modification or predication
[M-W's Col. Dic.]
  

Top answer

Jackson6612 In general, how do such rules come into being? Hi Jack: This has been the subject of considerable academic study and debate. I don't think the answer has been settled.

  • Jackson6612 In general, how do such rules come into being?
  • Hi Jack: This has been the subject of considerable academic study and debate.
  • I don't think the answer has been settled.
  • In the past decades, linguists have developed the theory that language is innate to our nature, and can be studied using the scientific approach.
  • Here are a couple of references.
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28 Answers
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Jackson6612In general, how do such rules come into being?

Hi Jack:

This has been the subject of considerable academic study and debate. I don't think the answer has been settled.

In the past decades, linguists have developed the theory that language is innate to our nature, and can be studied using the scientific approach.

Here are a coup

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Jackson6612In general, how such rules come into being?
Although the two scholars (Aaltonen and Uusipaikka) referred to in AS's post are Finns, their exposition is far too long for me to read.
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Jackson6612a preposition is always followed by a noun phrase. This a kind of rule in English language. Who made this rule?
Hi Jack:

It's an interesting question on the study of language and its evolution.
First of all, in English, a word is a preposition only if it's used as a preposition.
The book was on the table. (On is a prepositi
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Jackson6612Who made this rule?
The "rules" are exactly like the rules of physics. Some scientists (linguists) observe something (language) and then try to describe it (with theorems, rules, etc.)
So, for example, in English you need to put the object after the verb because that's what's been observed (Everyone says "I like apples" and not "I apples l
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AlpheccaStarsSo the grammatical part of speech for a word depends on its specific(local) function.
That's why a noun phrase always follows a prepostion.
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CB;

You are entirely right, I stand corrected.
Grammar rules in interrogative sentences call for a different word order than in indicative sentences. Also, to think of it, a prepositional ending is more common than we admit: e.g.

Your impertinence is something I will not put up with.

Phrasal verbs are also a variation on the pattern.... I wonder how many more ca
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AlpheccaStarsI'm no expert, but read this on an academic site:

As we will see, Old English words were much inflected.
I don't consider myself an expert on Old English either but I do know something about it as I had to take a course in Old English and I took examinations based on several books dealing with the history of the English language. This ha
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Cool BreezeI don't think a Finnish linguist would ever say Old English was "much inflected".
True. But someone who speaks Texan would!
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Cool BreezeMany of the scholars who consider less than ten forms a lot ("much inflected") speak as their mother tongue languages such as the Germanic and the Romance languages, none of which is highly inflected compared with truly highly inflected languages. This explains why less than ten forms is "much inflected" to them. A Finnish noun, for example, can have thousands
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KooyeenHow many "patterns" of declension or conjugation are there in Finnish?
I honestly don't know. We add endings to words to change the tone and often an ending is used instead of a word. For example, also / too can be expressed by adding an ending to a word. Inflection may not be the right word in such cases. It may be better to say that a word can

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