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Evan Gibbard Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Relative pronoun as both object and subject

I'm a longtime professional copy editor with a fairly firm grasp of English usage, but there's one thing that's always stumped me:

Is "whoever" or "whomever" appropriate when it separates two clauses and serves as both the object of the first clause and the subject of the second clause? Here's an example:

"Love is unique to (whomever/whoever) is giving or getting it."

I've never known the right answer to this, and it drives me nuts. Please explain if you know the answer. Thanks.
  

Top answer

Evan Gibbard Please explain if you know the answer. OK. Here's the rule.

  • Evan Gibbard Please explain if you know the answer.
  • OK.
  • Here's the rule.
  • Ignore its function in the main clause.
  • Choose according to its function in the subordinate clause.
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17 Answers
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Evan GibbardPlease explain if you know the answer.
OK. Here's the rule.

Ignore its function in the main clause. Choose according to its function in the subordinate clause.
End of story.
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Evan GibbardIs "whoever" or "whomever" appropriate when it separates two clauses and serves as both the object of the first clause and the subject of the second clause? Here's an example:

1. "Love is unique to (whomever/whoever) is giving or getting it."

The answer is "whoever", because "whoever" does serve as the subject of the second clause.
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How can a preposition have the subjective form of a word as its object? This seems counterintuitive to the point that I wonder if such constructions are inherently flawed and can't properly take a pronoun by itself. I typically rewrite these constructions to include a proper object — "Give it to whoever wants it" becomes "Give it to the person who wants it." If the subjective pronoun really is ac
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Evan GibbardHow can a preposition have the subjective form of a word as its object? Again, it's because the object of the preposition is also the subject of the second clause.

Maybe it was an arbitrary decision made by grammarians. Perhaps it was decided that the subject function trumps the object function. Also it is said that "whom" and "whomever" are only sur
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canadian45it is said that "whom" and "whomever" are only surviving in formal writing.
OK, that's close to the line in a discussion about proper English usage. As far as I've noticed, "whom" is alive and well in everyday conversation among conscientious English speakers. Replacing it with "who" is analogous to replacing "me" with "I," which only worked for Bob
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Evan GibbardHow can a preposition have the subjective form of a word as its object?
I just answer the questions. I don't justify the rules. If you expect every rule to be justified, you're asking for a lifetime of disappointment. Language is not mathematics. Standard historical practice trumps mathematical or logical precision.
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Evan GibbardOK, that's close to the line in a discussion about proper English usage. As far as I've noticed, "whom" is alive and well in everyday conversation among conscientious English speakers. Replacing it with "who" is analogous to replacing "me" with "I," which only worked for Bob Marley. To accept "who" as an objective pronoun is to accept the unnecessary degradati
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canadian45The subject form seems to be more important than the object form when they are in direct competition.
All right, I'm satisfied. Sorry for being antagonistic. I just wanted to be sure. Thanks for your help.
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canadian45The subject form seems to be more important than the object form when they are in direct competition.
Hmm. I'd rather say that the function in the subordinate clause is more important than the function in the main clause.

Whomever you ask will tell you that.

Here "Whomever you ask" is in the subject position, but its functi

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