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Anonymous Posted 10 years ago
Grammar
Refer to all generally?
Hi. Please help. It is written in Ezekiel 22:7 of the New International Version of the Bible:
7 In you they have treated father and mother with contempt; in you they have oppressed the foreigner and mistreated the fatherless and the widow.
Just looking at the part "they have oppressed the foreigner and mistreated the fatherless and the widow" without dealing with the context of the verse, which I think is possible, and as it is stated, are we looking at the words "the foreigner" and "the widow" being used to refer to all foreigners and all widows generally? If yes, is this kind of usage natural and correct in today's times?
7 In you they have treated father and mother with contempt; in you they have oppressed the foreigner and mistreated the fatherless and the widow.
Just looking at the part "they have oppressed the foreigner and mistreated the fatherless and the widow" without dealing with the context of the verse, which I think is possible, and as it is stated, are we looking at the words "the foreigner" and "the widow" being used to refer to all foreigners and all widows generally? If yes, is this kind of usage natural and correct in today's times?
Top answer
Anonymous Just looking at the part "they have oppressed the foreigner and mistreated the fatherless and the widow" without dealing with the context of the verse, which I think is possible, and as it is stated, are we looking at the words "the foreigner" and "the widow" being used to refer to all foreigners and all widows generally? If this phrase is taken entirely out of context, one would still be fairly sure that "the foreigner" and "the widow" refer to foreigners and widows generally. At least part of the reason is that they appear alongside "the fatherless".
- Anonymous Just looking at the part "they have oppressed the foreigner and mistreated the fatherless and the widow" without dealing with the context of the verse, which I think is possible, and as it is stated, are we looking at the words "the foreigner" and "the widow" being used to refer to all foreigners and all widows generally?
- If this phrase is taken entirely out of context, one would still be fairly sure that "the foreigner" and "the widow" refer to foreigners and widows generally.
- At least part of the reason is that they appear alongside "the fatherless".
- Anonymous If yes, is this kind of usage natural and correct in today's times?
- Yes, but more in writing than in conversation.
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AnonymousJust looking at the part "they have oppressed the foreigner and mistreated the fatherless and the widow" without dealing with the context of the verse, which I think is possible, and as it is stated, are we looking at the words "the foreigner" and "the widow" being used to refer to all foreigners and all widows generally?If this phrase is taken entir
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