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Pokh Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Reduced clause

His right hand and arm being crippled by a sniper’s bullet during the First World War, Horace Pippin, a Black American painter, worked by holding the brush in his right hand and guiding its movements with his left.

His right hand and arm crippled by a sniper’s bullet during the First World War, Horace Pippin, a Black American painter, worked by holding the brush in his right hand and guiding its movements with his left

Is crippled used as adjective in first sentence and as a verb in second one? GMAC says second one is good.....I really dont get what makes second better than first one?

Please clarify...
  

Top answer

No, you have them reversed: it is a participle in the 1st (passive voice) and an adjective in the 2nd (though some might also argue for participle in the 2nd as well). The second is 'better' simple because the verb 'be' is unnecessary and rather awkward. It is often omitted from dependent clauses.

  • No, you have them reversed: it is a participle in the 1st (passive voice) and an adjective in the 2nd (though some might also argue for participle in the 2nd as well).
  • The second is 'better' simple because the verb 'be' is unnecessary and rather awkward.
  • It is often omitted from dependent clauses.
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2 Answers
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No, you have them reversed: it is a participle in the 1st (passive voice) and an adjective in the 2nd (though some might also argue for participle in the 2nd as well). The second is 'better' simple because the verb 'be' is unnecessary and rather awkward. It is often omitted from dependent clauses.
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It's hard to believe "crippled" in the first sentence is an adjective. Substiture the word "removed" or perhaps "lacerated" and you still have a verb phrase. The second sentence does require a comma after "arm". The first sentence should include "having been" crippled....... to be correct, in my opinion.

Example:

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