0
Anonymous Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

Reason for past perfect use?

Hi. The definition of the word "detente" in the Collins COBUILD Advanced Learner's English Dictionary is this:

Detente is a state of friendly relations between two countries when previously there had been problems between them.

Why the past perfect "had been" in the sentence (definition)? Thank you for your help in advance.
  

Top answer

Only those who compiled the dictionary know for certain. My two (euro) cents is that because of previously a tense referring to the past must be used. It would be very odd if the future tense were used instead, for example.

— Cool Breeze

  • Only those who compiled the dictionary know for certain.
  • My two (euro) cents is that because of previously a tense referring to the past must be used.
  • It would be very odd if the future tense were used instead, for example.
  • CB
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

2 Answers
0
Only those who compiled the dictionary know for certain. My two (euro) centsEmotion: smile is that because of previously a tense referring
0
0
Only those who compiled the dictionary know for certain.
Quite.

I could accept 'had been' or 'were' or in that definition.If we omit the word 'previously, 'have been' is possibl
0

Related Questions