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Taka Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

Read

Do these two work equally fine and have the same meaning?

I've read his work for many years.
I've been reading his work for many years.
  

Top answer

#1 implies that you read the same texts repeatedly over those years. #2 implies that you have follow and read the texts written by that author and that you've been doing that for many years. #2 is more likely.

  • #1 implies that you read the same texts repeatedly over those years.
  • #2 implies that you have follow and read the texts written by that author and that you've been doing that for many years.
  • #2 is more likely.
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10 Answers
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#1 implies that you read the same texts repeatedly over those years.
#2 implies that you have follow and read the texts written by that author and that you've been doing that for many years.

#2 is more likely.
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Thanks for the great answer, teechr!
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Note that if you're referring to more than one text, use "works."
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OH!, I thought I wrote the plural. My mistake. Sorry.

So if it was the plural like "works" or "books", would #1 and #2 equally work fine and have the same meaning?
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TakaSo if it was the plural like "works" or "books", would #1 and #2 equally work fine
Yes.
Takaand have the same meaning?
"Books" is more specific than "works."
Edit: Also note my comment above. They do not have the same meaning!
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OK, so both "X has read Ys for many years" and "X has been reading Ys for many years" work fine and have the same meaning. Good.

Thanks again!
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They do not have the same meaning. Please read my initial answer.
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So are you saying that whether the work is the singular or the plural, there is a difference in meaning as you said in your first post? Aside for the number of the work, is it that basically the difference between the two is what you explained in that post?
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TakaSo are you saying that whether the work is the singular or the plural, there is a difference in meaning as you said in your first post?
Yes, the meaning is different in both cases.
TakaAside for the number of the work, is it that basically the difference between the two is what you explained in that post?
I'm not sure wh
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I'm not sure what you're trying to say. I've explained the difference in my first response above.
I'm just wondering whether there is a semantic difference between "X has read Y for years" and "X has been reading Y for years."

I'd like to know if, like the second one, the first one can mean X has kept reading Y for years, even though it's not the progres

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