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Maple Posted 19 years ago
Grammar
"susceptibility to fewer..." VS "lower susceptibility to..."
This could imply susceptibility to fewer age-related diseases such as heart disease or osteoporosis. (sentence from http://www.kcl.ac.uk/phpnews/wmview.php?ArtID=1918 )
I would rephrase it as:
This could imply lower susceptibility to age-related diseases such as heart disease or osteoporosis.
Do they have the same meaning? (If yes, which one do you like best?)
Thanks for your opinions!
I would rephrase it as:
This could imply lower susceptibility to age-related diseases such as heart disease or osteoporosis.
Do they have the same meaning? (If yes, which one do you like best?)
Thanks for your opinions!
Top answer
Yeah, they both say the same thing, but I like the second one better, its easier to read.
- Yeah, they both say the same thing, but I like the second one better, its easier to read.
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5 Answers
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Yeah, they both say the same thing, but I like the second one better, its easier to read.
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No, they don't have the same meaning.
susceptibility to fewer.... you are less likely to develop certain health problems, but your risk of other health problems remains the same. i.e. it is very unlikely you will get disease X or Y, but your likelihood of developing A,B or C is the same as other people.
lower susceptibitlity to... you are less likely to develop X, Y, A, B or C
susceptibility to fewer.... you are less likely to develop certain health problems, but your risk of other health problems remains the same. i.e. it is very unlikely you will get disease X or Y, but your likelihood of developing A,B or C is the same as other people.
lower susceptibitlity to... you are less likely to develop X, Y, A, B or C
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[C]
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