"It'd better be good" and "It better be good"

Question

The " 'd" sound is pretty stealthy and just a few minutes ago I have been picked on typing "it better be good".

So! My question is this: is "it better be good" grammatically incorrect (I don't see how...)? Or are both of them correct but have different meanings? My theory is that both of them are correct but "it better be good" is a command where as "it'd better be good" carries a subjunctive mood...

And here comes Question 2! After being picked on "it better be" I was also accused for writing "it is indeed". In fact, my "it is indeed" has been corrected to "yes indeed". I'm pretty sure indeed is an adverb and so is yes. So how is it possible that "yes indeed" (without a comma) is more correct (excuse me) than "It is indeed"? I know my grammar isn't perfect but I'd be a tad bit less upset if I were corrected with "yes, indeed" (with a comma).

Thanks in advance! (<----- here comes my third question, some people say "thanks in advanced" and others say what I said. Which one is correct?)

Nef · Accepted Answer

So! My question is this: is "it better be good" grammatically incorrect (I don't see how...)? Or are both of them correct but have different meanings? My theory is that both of them are correct but "it better be good" is a command where as "it'd better be good" carries a subjunctive mood...

And here comes Question 2! After being picked on "it better be" I was also accused for writing "it is indeed". In fact, my "it is indeed" has been corrected to "yes indeed". I'm pretty sure indeed is an adverb and so is yes. So how is it possible that "yes indeed" (without a comma) is more correct (excuse me) than "It is indeed"? I know my grammar isn't perfect but I'd be a tad bit less upset if I were corrected with "yes, indeed" (with a comma).

Thanks in advance! (<----- here comes my third question, some people say "thanks in advanced" and others say what I said. Which one is correct?)

Here's how I see things.

1. "It better be good" is not grammatically correct, but people say it a lot anyway. It is said so often that it seems to have become a standard phrase. Maybe people see the missing "had" as understood. "It'd (or it had) better be good" is the grammatically correct form. I wouldn't worry if someone used the first form of the sentence, though.

2. "Yes, indeed."

"It is indeed" the case! Depending on circumstances, either or both could be correct. (Are you tired? "Yes, indeed.") (Is it time to go to sleep? "Yes, indeed." OR "It is indeed." Both phrases work in this example.) (At the moment, I can't think of an example where only "It is indeed" would work.)

3. "In advance" is correct and means before, earlier than, ahead of time. You are thanking people before they answer (and encouraging them to respond). (Someone might say "In advanced English classes, it is important to read a lot." This would be correct usage of "in advanced," but the meaning would be different.)

I think one of the most difficult things about using a second or third language is knowing how much leeway is acceptable, understanding what kind of possible mistakes are real problems and which are so minor (or debatable) that they really aren't worth much attention. Of the examples you mentioned, the only one that would make me uncomfortable would be the "in advanced" phrase. That would grate on my ear (sound very wrong).

Anonymous · Answer

Thank you very much! I get 66.66666% after all

Just out of curiosity (or stupidity?) How do I explain the tense of "be" in "it had better be good?" It appears to be present in the sentence. Does it not have anything to do with "had... been"?

Nef · Answer

The way I think of it, "It had better be good" is very much oriented toward the future. It's almost like saying "It will need to be good."

Anonymous · Answer

I'velearnt that the "'d" in "It'd better be..." is the contracted form of "would", that's oriented to a future possibility. Maybe I've been wrong all this time, but I cannot see how "had" can fit  in that sentence, at all. There's not possibily of it being a past perfect form nor the verb to have conjugated in its simple past form. Besides, the "had" in the past perfect is only used contracted commonly on Spoken English.

Yankee · Answer

AnonymousI'velearnt that the "'d" in "It'd better be ..." is the contracted form of "would", that's oriented to a future possibility.

You have either been been misinformed or you're confusing two different things, Anon. You'd better get things cleared up in a hurry (you had better)!

The "d" in "It'd better be good" is a contraction of "had."

When I say "You had better get things cleared up", the meaning is "It would be wise if you got things cleared up."

Look at definition number 20 in the following link:
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/Had+better?r=66

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Now, if you hear someone say something like "It'd be better to do it quickly" (notice that the word order is different!), then the "d" is a contraction of the word "would":

- It would be better to do it quickly.

Anonymous · Answer

Guys, thank a million for clear explanation. but one question, if you don`t mind. I did my best to find out the meaning of "it better be good", but unfortunately failed. could you tell me please, what it means and in what kind of situation it is used. Thanks much, in advance!

Anonymous · Answer

the meaning of "it better be good":

As mentioned above, this is a contraction of "It had better be good" so it is more correct to say just that (or "It'd better be good"). To say only "it better be good" always suggests a poor grasp of the language (a bit like saying "I'd better, bettern't I instead of "I'd better, hadn't I")

It is used as an implied threat or warning, for example:

"what's your excuse for not doing your homework - it'd better be good",

meaning: "you had better have a good excuse for not doing your homework or you will be grounded for a week"

Normally you would say it only to someone who considers themselves your subordinate and who understands the implied consequences, although it is often used in a half-joking way between people were the only threat is mild embarrassment.

Anonymous · Answer

"It'd better be good" is a fixed expression, the "past" of "to have"  (had better) has nothing to do with the past, in fact, this is a warning about a future negative outcome... now, the "It better be good" is like "how you doing?", or "coming early today?", the auxiliary is missing, native speakers use these kind of expressions a lot, it's just a colloquial way of communicating, but certainly grammatically incorrect, if that is what concerns you.

"It'd better be good" and "It better be good"

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