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Teleostomi Posted 20 years ago
Vocabulary
"in middle age" and "at an older age"
(1)in middle age
(2)at an older age
Why is it that (1) has no article and has a different preposition from (2)?
(2)at an older age
Why is it that (1) has no article and has a different preposition from (2)?
Top answer
Hi, (1)in middle age (2)at an older age Why is it that (1) has no article and has a different preposition from (2)? (1)in middle age It's 'in' because this refers to an age range, eg 40 to 50. There is no article because 'middle age' is a unique period and this is the name we sue for it.
- Hi, (1)in middle age (2)at an older age Why is it that (1) has no article and has a different preposition from (2)?
- (1)in middle age It's 'in' because this refers to an age range, eg 40 to 50.
- There is no article because 'middle age' is a unique period and this is the name we sue for it.
- (2)at an older age It's 'at' because we say 'at' for a precise location.
- 'An' is because there are many 'older ages' and this is a nono-psecific reference to one of them.
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4 Answers
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Hi,
(1)in middle age
(2)at an older age
Why is it that (1) has no article and has a different preposition from (2)?
(1)in middle age It's 'in' because this refers to an age range, eg 40 to 50. There is no article because
(1)in middle age
(2)at an older age
Why is it that (1) has no article and has a different preposition from (2)?
(1)in middle age It's 'in' because this refers to an age range, eg 40 to 50. There is no article because
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Thank you Clive, again you helped me as well as other questions.
I'm still wondering why there are fewer examples seen as "in one's middle ages" whereas "in one's middle age" is common. Is it just the way English speakers are used to?
I'm still wondering why there are fewer examples seen as "in one's middle ages" whereas "in one's middle age" is common. Is it just the way English speakers are used to?
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Hi,
I'm still wondering why there are fewer examples seen as "in one's middle ages" whereas "in one's middle age" is common. Is it just the way English speakers are used to? Yes, it seems idiomatic. However, we do say 'he is in his middle years'.
It also sounds odd, even funny, to my ear to try to speak of a person's 'middle ages' becaus
I'm still wondering why there are fewer examples seen as "in one's middle ages" whereas "in one's middle age" is common. Is it just the way English speakers are used to? Yes, it seems idiomatic. However, we do say 'he is in his middle years'.
It also sounds odd, even funny, to my ear to try to speak of a person's 'middle ages' becaus
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I see! That's really convincing. That must be why people had come to avoid saying "in one's middle ages." Thank you very much Clive.
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