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Anonymous Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

"I have" why not "I has"

0Hello friends02br
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00I wish to know "Why 'have' is used after I instead of 'has'. 02br
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00Because otherwise we use "have" after plurals (they, we, etc.) and "has" after singulars (he, she, it). Why then we use "have" after I (singular).02br
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00Is it an exception or there is some specific rule regarding this?02br
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00e.g. We say "I have got a pen". Why not "I has got a pen".02br
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00Thanks02br
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00David0-
  

Top answer

0 When you conjugate "have" in the present tense, it's "I have", not "I has". "Has" goes with "she, he, it" 0-

— Pieanne

  • 0 When you conjugate "have" in the present tense, it's "I have", not "I has".
  • "Has" goes with "she, he, it" 0-
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6 Answers
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0 When you conjugate "have" in the present tense, it's "I have", not "I has". "Has" goes with "she, he, it" 0-
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0A lot of verbs follow this pattern.02br
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00I/we/they run02br
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00He/she/it runs0-
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0In the present tense, the -s belongs to the 3rd person (sing)0-
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0 01font00As you can tell from the previous answers, it is the 3rd-person-singular form in the present tense that is "out of step", not the 1st-person-singular. For regular verbs, all forms are the same except for the 3rd-person-singular, which adds an 's'.02font00 0-
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0 EDIT: the quoting feature doesn't seem to be working right now. I used "----" to represent quotes.02br
00--------------------------------------02br
00I wish to know "Why 'have' is used after I instead of 'has'.02br
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00The verb to "have" comes from the Old English verb "habban".02br
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