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LethalPotato Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

"I have never run from a fight" or "I have never ran from a fight"

Which is correct? Are both correct? Are there any specific rules reguarding this(I'm sure there would be)

I have never run from a fight.
or
I have never ran from a fight.

I head a certain Prime Minister say "I have never run from a fight" and it sounded a little odd, I was just wondering if it was correct.
  

Top answer

The required verb form after has, have, or had when forming the perfect tenses is the past participle. The past participle of run is run , so run is the correct form. There are two verbs that cause some trouble for learners in that the past participle is the same as the infinitive form.

— CalifJim

  • The required verb form after has, have, or had when forming the perfect tenses is the past participle.
  • The past participle of run is run , so run is the correct form.
  • There are two verbs that cause some trouble for learners in that the past participle is the same as the infinitive form.
  • run and come .
  • He has never run from a fight.
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1 Answers
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The required verb form after has, have, or had when forming the perfect tenses is the past participle.

The past participle of run is run, so run is the correct form.

There are two verbs that cause some trouble for learners in that the past participle is the same as the infinitive form. run and come.

He has never r
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