"I am yet to see" versus "I have yet to see"

Hello All,

Hope you can help me out here. I have been using "I am yet to (followed by verb)" for a long time, since I learnt it in primary school I think. However, yesterday, there was an argument about the standard of English in my college. One of the participants pointed out that my statement,

"I am yet to see a thread in which the respondents used just proper English. It is about time we promote the usage of proper English."

was grammatically incorrect, and said it should read,

""I HAVE yet to see a thread in which the respondents used just proper English."

I, on the other hand, claimed that both are correct, as it is just a matter of preference. This is the explanation given by him,

Context:
First of all, there is always a reason to use certain words rather than others. Each word inflect upon different aspects of a sentence differently.

Anyway,

"I have yet to see"... the "have" and "yet" are the unique words that make up the sentence here. "Have" is used in the context with a present perfect tense. 'Present perfect' means 'any unfinished past or anything that has started but not ended'.

"I am yet to see"... the "am" and "yet" here is used for a future tense. 'Future tenses' refers to actions that have not started yet, or something that is to be done in the future.

Illustration:

I have yet to see a stupid person. (Translation: I have already begun searching for one, but until now, I have not seen one... yet).

I am yet to do my homework. (Translation: I have to do the homework, but have not started... yet).



Of coz, he claims this is the explanation he got from English teachers.

I was thinking, does this explanation mean that, the seeing of such threads has started but not finished? Ddoes his argument also mean that, "I have yet to go to England" imply that he has started going England, but not reached there?

Please share your thoughts