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Guest Posted 22 years ago
Grammar
"have a cold" *-)
Hi, all. I need a help from native speakers of English.
Please compare the following 2 sets of sentences and tell me the difference between the sentences in each set.
1a. I have a cold.
1b. I'm having a cold.
2a. I've had a cold for 3 days.
2b. I've been having a cold for 3 days.
In my understanding,
(1) basically the two sentences mean the same, but 1b/2b shows more clearly that the condition is temporary, as in "I'm having(=holding) a book now."/"I have been living Tokyo for 2 years."
(2) 1b can be also used meaning "I'm catching/getting a cold" in some situation, which I feel less proper/common. (I prefer to use "catching/getting".) I also feel that it becomes even less proper/common to use 2b in the meaning of "I've been getting a cold for 3 days."
Is my understanding wrong or correct, especially on the second meaning?
Thank you.
Please compare the following 2 sets of sentences and tell me the difference between the sentences in each set.
1a. I have a cold.
1b. I'm having a cold.
2a. I've had a cold for 3 days.
2b. I've been having a cold for 3 days.
In my understanding,
(1) basically the two sentences mean the same, but 1b/2b shows more clearly that the condition is temporary, as in "I'm having(=holding) a book now."/"I have been living Tokyo for 2 years."
(2) 1b can be also used meaning "I'm catching/getting a cold" in some situation, which I feel less proper/common. (I prefer to use "catching/getting".) I also feel that it becomes even less proper/common to use 2b in the meaning of "I've been getting a cold for 3 days."
Is my understanding wrong or correct, especially on the second meaning?
Thank you.
Top answer
We don't use the second of each pair at all. We reword them like this: I'm having one of [my/those] colds (again). ) I've been [sick with / fighting / suffering from / nursing] a cold for three days.
- We don't use the second of each pair at all.
- We reword them like this: I'm having one of [my/those] colds (again).
- ) I've been [sick with / fighting / suffering from / nursing] a cold for three days.
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4 Answers
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We don't use the second of each pair at all. We reword them like this:
I'm having one of [my/those] colds (again). (This is used to mean that you are experiencing the recurrence of something that happens to you repetitively.)
I've been [sick with / fighting / suffering from / nursing] a cold for three days.
I'm having one of [my/those] colds (again). (This is used to mean that you are experiencing the recurrence of something that happens to you repetitively.)
I've been [sick with / fighting / suffering from / nursing] a cold for three days.
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In Britain the only one in use is 2a.
For 1a and 1b we use 'I've got a cold'. (I understand that the 'have got' construction, although extremely common in British English, is considered ungrammatical elsewhere?).
2a. I've had a cold for 3 days. This sounds fine for British English.
2b. I've been having a cold for 3 days. This is not used.
For 1a and 1b we use 'I've got a cold'. (I understand that the 'have got' construction, although extremely common in British English, is considered ungrammatical elsewhere?).
2a. I've had a cold for 3 days. This sounds fine for British English.
2b. I've been having a cold for 3 days. This is not used.
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I think I've said 'I have a cold' before now. Though usually in declarative contexts:
Enters office. With air of announcement:
'I have a cold.'
You would also use 'I have a cold' with adjectives: 'I have a bad cold'.
(Actually, you wouldn't say that at all. You'd say: 'I hababacole.')
MrP
Enters office. With air of announcement:
'I have a cold.'
You would also use 'I have a cold' with adjectives: 'I have a bad cold'.
(Actually, you wouldn't say that at all. You'd say: 'I hababacole.')
MrP
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