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Anonymous Posted 20 years ago
Linguistics Studies

"has to" as a helping verb?

0 In the sentence, "She has to eat salad every day," would "has to" be a helping verb for the action verb "eat?" Initially "to eat" looks like an infinitive, but isn't "has to" another way of saying "must," which would make it a helping verb?02br
02br
00Thanks! 0-
  

Top answer

0Hello Anon02br 02br 00The verb "have" in your sentence acts as a modal verb. As a modal verb, it takes an infinitive:02br 02br 001. She eats salad every day.

  • 0Hello Anon02br 02br 00The verb "have" in your sentence acts as a modal verb.
  • As a modal verb, it takes an infinitive:02br 02br 001.
  • She eats salad every day.
  • 02br 02br 002.
  • She 01u 00has to eat02u 00 salad every day.
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20 Answers
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0Hello Anon02br
02br
00The verb "have" in your sentence acts as a modal verb. As a modal verb, it takes an infinitive:02br
02br
001. She eats salad every day. ] A simple statement about a regular occurrence.02br
02br
002. She 01u00has to eat02u00 salad every day. ] We now learn something about the eating: it's som
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Anonymous12cite10In the sentence, "She has to eat salad every day," would "has to" be a helping verb for the action verb "eat?" Initially "to eat" looks like an infinitive, but isn't "has to" another way of saying "must," which would make it a helping verb? Thanks!12blockquote
10"Have/has/had (to)" is not a me
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Milky12cite12br
10"Have to" is normally used for subjective obligation or necessity, e.g. when a person feels he/she is obliged to do something or something is necessary, and "must" (in one use) is used for expressing objective obligation or necessity. that is, when the obligation or necessity is placed upon us by another
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0 Basically, here the verb "have" (in this case conjugated as "has") is synonymous to the verb "must," explaining that the action is obligatory. The difference is that "have/has" in this context is followed by an infinitive verb (in this case "01b01i00to 02i02b00eat"), whereas "must" is followed by a standardised verb ("eat" on its own, in other words withou
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0 01blockquote
01cite10MrPedantic12cite11blockquote
11cite20Milky22cite22br
20"Have to" is normally used for subjective obligation or necessity, e.g. when a person feels he/she is obliged to do something or something is necessary, and "must" (in one use) is used for expressing objective obligation or nece
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0 "MrPedantic" It's an attractive theory, Milky; but would you say it holds true of all these examples? 02br
02br
01i00______________________________________________02i02br
02br
00So, tell me what you think about a few of them. 02br
02br
001 the chance to grow up graciously. He had to acquire everything he was going
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0I would take those as subjective. But there seem to be some complications with "had to". It's often presented as the "past tense" of "must", e.g.02br
02br
001. "You must go directly to the headmaster's study and wait for me there."02br
02br
00Later: "He said I had to go directly to the headmaster's study and wait for him there."02br
02br

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0 01blockquote
01cite10Milky12cite12br
11blockquote
11cite20Anonymous22cite20In the sentence, "She has to eat salad every day," would "has to" be a helping verb for the action verb "eat?" Initially "to eat" looks like an infinitive, but isn't "has to" another way of saying "must," which would make it a he
0
0 01blockquote
00it seems that a few American English speakers do not distinguish between those uses12blockquote
12br
00 Actually, the subjective/objective distinction is of extremely little importance to American speakers. Typically "must" is used as an epistemic modal almost exclusively in ordinary conversation, and "have to" as a deontic mod
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0 01blockquote
01cite10CalifJim12cite11blockquote
10it seems that a few American English speakers do not distinguish between those uses22blockquote
20Actually, the subjective/objective distinction is of extremely little importance to American speakers. Typically "must" is used as an epistemic modal almost exclusively

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