0Hello Anon02br 02br 00The verb "have" in your sentence acts as a modal verb. As a modal verb, it takes an infinitive:02br 02br 001. She eats salad every day.
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01cite10Anonymous12cite10In the sentence, "She has to eat salad every day," would "has to" be a helping verb for the action verb "eat?" Initially "to eat" looks like an infinitive, but isn't "has to" another way of saying "must," which would make it a helping verb? Thanks!12blockquote10"Have/has/had (to)" is not a me
01cite10Milky12cite12br
10"Have to" is normally used for subjective obligation or necessity, e.g. when a person feels he/she is obliged to do something or something is necessary, and "must" (in one use) is used for expressing objective obligation or necessity. that is, when the obligation or necessity is placed upon us by another
01cite10MrPedantic12cite11blockquote11cite20Milky22cite22br
20"Have to" is normally used for subjective obligation or necessity, e.g. when a person feels he/she is obliged to do something or something is necessary, and "must" (in one use) is used for expressing objective obligation or nece
01cite10Milky12cite12br
11blockquote11cite20Anonymous22cite20In the sentence, "She has to eat salad every day," would "has to" be a helping verb for the action verb "eat?" Initially "to eat" looks like an infinitive, but isn't "has to" another way of saying "must," which would make it a he
00it seems that a few American English speakers do not distinguish between those uses12blockquote12br
01cite10CalifJim12cite11blockquote10it seems that a few American English speakers do not distinguish between those uses22blockquote20Actually, the subjective/objective distinction is of extremely little importance to American speakers. Typically "must" is used as an epistemic modal almost exclusively