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Peaceblinkfriend Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

"...caused a virus before further tests (have been carried out.)'

It would be unwise to predicate that the disease is caused by a virus before further tests have been carried out.

It would be unwise to predicate that the disease is caused by a virus before further tests.

Hi all,

I have got two questions about this. First, what are the possible differences between the first and the second sentence? Second, is there a reason for using the present perfect tense in the underlined part?

Thank you.

Best wishes,

PBF
  

Top answer

Hi PBF I'd say that the present perfect (have been carried out) simply indicates the completion of "more tests" more clearly.

— Yankee

  • Hi PBF I'd say that the present perfect (have been carried out) simply indicates the completion of "more tests" more clearly.
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4 Answers
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Hi PBF

I'd say that the present perfect (have been carried out) simply indicates the completion of "more tests" more clearly.
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Right. So, in other words, they basically mean the same thing. Right?

Thanks again.

Best wishes,

PBF
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To indicate the temporal meaning of before, an action clause or a noun that can be interpreted as an action should follow.

I turned off the oven before I left the house.
Things like that used to happen before the war. [before the war took place]
We were ready before sunset. [before the sunset took place]
*We were ready before the pencil. [
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