Question regarding "as if I were/was"

Question

I have a problem that I can't research because I cannot adequately define the problem. (That make sense?) I have difficulty choosing between "were" and "was" in certain contexts. For example, which would I choose for the following sentence:

"He jumped around as if he was/were a frog."

I have an inclination to use "were," and I'm almost certain that "were" is right, but I don't know that rule stating why. Can someone please point to the specifics of such a rule.

Thanks!!!

Hitchhiker · Accepted Answer

You are correct; it should be 'were'. I can't really explain why though! (Teacher!?)

Maj · Answer

both are used although "were" is supposed to be the best. Personally, I wouldn't bother.

Techwriter · Answer

Were is correct, though I hear both all the time in everyday talk. The rule for it is that it is the subjunctive form of the verb, which is rare in English, but common in some other languages (like Spanish). The page below can probably explain its usage better than I can:

[removed]

Bec · Answer

Thanks everyone for the tips!  The website was great and explained it immediately.  I knew it was someting simple, I just couldn't put my finger on it.  (All these verb forms/tenses/moods -- ugh!)

Wohnivek · Answer

Hi all! I'm new here. I raised the same question to a friend and here is the explanation:

Blame it on the Subjunctive for the use of 'were' instead of 'was' in conditional clauses when referring to a situation that does not exist or that is unlikely, hence 'were' is formally used in sentences with 'if', 'as if', 'as though'. The Subjunctive is an old form of language that has stubbornly survived.

Collins Cobuild's Book of English Usage suggests that both 'were' and 'was' can be used, though 'was' is used more often in spoken English while 'were' in written English.

Cheers!

Wohni

Woodward · Answer

Hi Wohnivek,
Welcome to the Forum.
Thanks for your input, every bit of help is appreciated.

Guest · Answer

It is "were."  If it is a wish or a desire, or not a fact, then you use "were."  That is the simpliest way to remember the rule, I believe.

Whl626 · Answer

In spoken english, people don't stick to the rule so strictly.

Mike in Japan · Answer

True to a certain extent WHL626, but it does sound nice, and it is correct.

Pemmican · Answer

This is what I posted yesterday to an equal question:

The subjunctive (also called: conjunctive) and the conditional are Modi (=
forms of expressing) of a verb:

The subjunctive expresses irreal situations while the conditional expresses a
possible reality.

English has nearly lost its subjunctive as an own modus of the verb (except the
form: I/he were). Because the forms of the subjunctive almost fell together with
the forms of the Simple Past the conditional took over also the function of the
subjunctive.

The conditional is formed by would+infinitive which is originally the past form of the
future (compare to will+infinitive).

While e.g. French has an own paradigm for both conditional and subjunctive,
English only had one for the subjunctive. The Conditional was and still is
paraphrased by would+infinitive.

So actually there would be ("were") no difference if you said:
"She would fly (=conditional) to London if she had money" or
"She flew (=subjunctive) to London if she had money"

The first one rather expresses: it is possible that she would go because she maybe has the money to go, while the 2nd one would rather express: She would hardly go because she doesn't have the money.

But: Due to the fact that the subjunctive has extincted and could easily be
messed up with simple past, it is now replaced by the conditional and only the
2nd sentence would be ("were") correct.

Btw: This "had" in the if-clause: If she "had" money... IS subjunctive! It expresses something more or less irreal, but NO past!

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