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Dear all,I would like to know whether the following sentences are correct. If yes, kindly tell me the difference in their meaning.1) He had no reason for being late.2) He had no reason to be late.3) He had no reason to late.Thank you.

CalifJim · Accepted Answer

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Dear all,
I would like to know whether the following sentences are correct. If yes, kindly tell me the difference in their meaning.
1) He had no reason for being late. OK
2) He had no reason to be late. OK
3) He had no reason to late. NO

Thank you.

1) fits in a scenario where he was late but could give no reason.
2) fits in a scenario where he was positioned to be on time because nothing was stopping him from being on time.

Nevertheless, 2) also fits in the same scenario suggested above for 1).

Put differently, 1) suggests he was already late, but 2) doesn't suggest that so clearly, so it can be used if he was already late AND if he was not already late.

Opinions may vary on this.

CJ

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