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Anonymous Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
Question about neither/nor
Dear teacher, is there a difference in the meaning between these two sentences with neither/nor? If not which form is more common?
NOTE - None of them cause the problems.
1. The problems come neither from John nor from Tom.
2. The problems don't come neither from John nor from Tom.
Thanks!
NOTE - None of them cause the problems.
1. The problems come neither from John nor from Tom.
2. The problems don't come neither from John nor from Tom.
Thanks!
Top answer
#1 is correctly written. #2 is not. 2.
- #1 is correctly written.
- #2 is not.
- 2.
- The problems don't come from either John or Tom.
- And it means the same as 1.
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4 Answers
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#1 is correctly written.
#2 is not.
2. The problems don't come from either John or Tom. And it means the same as 1.
#2 is not.
2. The problems don't come from either John or Tom. And it means the same as 1.
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Can we skip either without changing the meaning?
1. The problems don't come from either John or Tom .
2. The problems don't come from John or Tom .
1. The problems don't come from either John or Tom .
2. The problems don't come from John or Tom .
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Yes. The meaning is unchanged; but it isn't a comparison to the previous #1.
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