Quantifying None.

Question

Please could I have a current consensus from the English-speaking nations on whether the concept of 'less than one' is singular or plural. Which of these is/are correct and why?
a. Not one of them is here today.
b. None of the enemy is here.
c. None of them are here.
d. None is available to respond.

Wilpeter · Accepted Answer

I'm London-England born but in Canada. Your question assumes that there is more than one answer; but this is a site where you would usually expect a 'judgement'. I'll respond based on what I would answer, though this is one time I wish I were not a first-responder.
a - looks correct to me. Reason - it sounds like a singular subject.
b - uncertain. Have never heard it said this way.
c - conventionally, it sounds correct because 'them' is plural. However, I prefer to avoid this phrase.
d - looks correct to me. Reason - without qualification, 'none' remains uncounted and singular.
Was that what you wanted?

CalifJim · Answer

Anonymous Please could I have a current consensus from the English-speaking nations on whether the concept of 'less than one' is singular or plural. Which of these is/are correct and why?a. Not one of them is here today.b. None of the enemy is here.c. None of them are here.d. None is available to respond.

The "rule" is that None, None of X, and Not one of X are all singular. This rule should be adhered to in formal writing.

In casual writing, however, and in speech, it is quite common to hear the singular or plural, whatever matches X.

None of the wine is good. (formal)
None of the wine is good. (casual)
None of the desserts is good. (formal)
None of the desserts are good. (casual)

As you can see, there is only a difference (and thus a choice) when X is plural.

CJ

GPY · Answer

Oxford Dictionaries has this to say on the subject:

It is sometimes held that none can take only a singular verb, never a plural verb: ‘none of them is coming tonight’, rather than ‘none of them are coming tonight’. There is little justification, historical or grammatical, for this view. None is descended from Old English nan, meaning ‘not one,’ and has been used for around a thousand years with both a singular and a plural verb, depending on the context and the emphasis needed.

I feel reassured by this since, although I was once taught that "none" should be singular, my natural instinct is usually to treat it as plural.

CalifJim · Answer

GPYmy natural instinct is usually to treat it as plural.

... when the noun after 'of the' is plural (or the implied noun is plural).

I assume.

I'm sure you don't usually say "None of the meat were eaten".

CJ

GPY · Answer

CalifJimI assume.

Right.

CalifJim · Answer

GPY,

Is anyone on your side of the pond still a stickler these days for "always singular" in formal contexts? Maybe it's just some kind of fastidiousness on the American side?

CJ

Fivejedjon · Answer

CalifJimIs anyone on your side of the pond still a stickler these days for "always singular" in formal contexts? Maybe it's just some kind of fastidiousness on the American side?CJ

The 'always singular' was so hammered into me at school that I still stick to it over half a century later. I hasten to add that I do not insist that my students do this.

GPY · Answer

CalifJimIs anyone on your side of the pond still a stickler these days for "always singular" in formal contexts?

Yes, I think there is a residual sense of this amongst those who were taught it that way. I don't know what current teaching says about it. In fact, I wonder whether many children are even taught such things any more.

CalifJim · Answer

GPYI wonder whether many children are even taught such things any more.

That is, if they're taught anything at all. (Sigh.)

CJ

Anonymous · Answer

Thank you for all your opinions.  They are much appreciated.

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