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Anonymous Posted 17 years ago
Grammar
Proper use of BOTH and NOT
Consider this part of a sentence:
"... should both persons not be able to drive ..."
Is it true if just one of the persons is unable to drive? If so, the sentence seems equivalent to "... should either person not be able to drive ..." and that sure looks like a contradiction to me.
Thanks!
"... should both persons not be able to drive ..."
Is it true if just one of the persons is unable to drive? If so, the sentence seems equivalent to "... should either person not be able to drive ..." and that sure looks like a contradiction to me.
Thanks!
Top answer
-- No. Both of them must be unable before the unmentioned term/condition applies.
- -- No.
- Both of them must be unable before the unmentioned term/condition applies.
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3 Answers
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Is it true if just one of the persons is unable to drive?-- No. Both of them must be unable before the unmentioned term/condition applies.
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Is it true if just one of the persons is unable to drive?-- No. Both of them must be unable before the unmentioned term/condition applies.
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AnonymousConsider this part of a sentence:
... the sentence seems equivalent to "... should either person not be able to drive ..."
No - it's the equivalent of 'should neither person be able to drive'. Which, to me, seems a more elegant way of saying it.
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