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Goodk Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

Present tense independent clause followed by a past perfect tense subordinate clause ?

The original context was,

"A: Why has my electricity been cut off?
B: I'm afraid your bill has not been paid yet."

The question is:

if we simply disregard the original context, and change the second sentence to

"I'm afraid your bill had not been paid yet.",

is the new one grammatically correct?

If yes, what are the differences between it and

"I'm afraid your bill has not been paid yet."?

Thank you.
  

Top answer

Hi, The original context was, "A: Why has my electricity been cut off? ", is the new one grammatically correct? , but it would be better to omit the word 'yet'.

— Clive

  • Hi, The original context was, "A: Why has my electricity been cut off?
  • ", is the new one grammatically correct?
  • , but it would be better to omit the word 'yet'.
  • "?
  • Assume your electricity was cut off on Monday, and today is Wednesday.
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4 Answers
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Hi,

The original context was,

"A: Why has my electricity been cut off?
B: I'm afraid your bill has not been paid yet."

The question is:

if we simply disregard the original context, and change the second sentence to

"I'm afraid your bill had not been paid yet.",

is the new one grammatically correct? The tense
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Hi clive,

Thanks so much for the reply. I really appreciate that. I stumbled into this web site just a couple hours ago. And this is my very first posting. I feel great about this web site.
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Sorry, allow me to correct the greeting in my last posting to "Hi Clive." Thanks.
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