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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Present perfect vs present perfect continuous

"Ever since then, I have been dedicating most of my time to studying."
or
"Ever since then, I have dedicated most of my time to studying."

I can't seem to figure this out by myself, so can somebody please explain to me which of the two sentences above is correct and why?
  

Top answer

They are both possible. I detect hardly any difference in meaning.

— Mr Wordy

  • They are both possible.
  • I detect hardly any difference in meaning.
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9 Answers
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They are both possible. I detect hardly any difference in meaning.
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Anonymous"Ever since then, I have been dedicating most of my time to studying."
or
"Ever since then, I have dedicated most of my time to studying." They both describe the same situation, referring to a period of time between a "distant" past event and the very "recent" past.
The only difference to my ear is the "continuous" action of the dedicat
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Anonymous"Ever since then, I have been dedicating most of my time to studying."
I would not choose this one because I don't like the effect of multiple -ings so close together. Secondly, I don't care for the use of the abstract verb dedicatein the continuous aspect here. I don't sense that people "sit around (
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CalifJim I don't sense that people "sit around (doing) dedicating".
But even very strange people need to be able to describe what they do.
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AvangiNeither tense addresses whether or not the action continues into the present

Really? I thought that was the idea of the present perfect. It reads to me as though it is continuing in the present--though I could of course be wrong.
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English 1b3[ I could of course be wrong.
Me too. I understand the term "perfect" to mean "complete." The action is a done deal. "I have died." I'm not still dying in the present.

I think I've read opinions that the action continues in the present, but they just confuse me.
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AvangiI think I've read opinions that the action continues in the present, but they just confuse me.
The way I see it, it's more that the consequence or relevance of the action continues into the present, not the action itself.
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I'll buy that.

This would not be true of simple past, because it may be distant past.

I have died. People will mourn.

I died. People are happy.
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AvangiI understand the term "perfect" to mean "complete."
I have heard this explanation countless times, and it has never made a bit of sense to me. I think it's a bogus explanation. If anything expresses completeness it's the past tense. The better explanation, I think, is the one implicit in the terms "definite past" (simple past) and "indefinite past" (
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