I'd say 'No'. Because the 'present perfect' represents something as either happened or not happened at an unspecified or unknown time before now. We need the 'have + a past participle' form with the modal - 'need' is also a modal verb, because there's no past forms, as ordinary verbs in English have, for them.
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hachi8this "have done" is same as present perfect??It is the modal perfect.
hachi8"You should have done it."This means that the action didn't really happen, i.e., you didn't really do that thing, but It would have been a good thing If you had done that. You were supposed to do it, but you didn't.
hachi8I don't think the "have done" in "need not have done" means "present perfect" anymore.No.
hachi8You should have done it.= It [was / would have been] advisable for you to do it (but you didn't).
I'm sorry, but would that above mean I could ALSO say that~???
You could say that "You should have done it" = It is expected by the speaker that the other person does something in the past, but he/she [fails to / doesn't] do that (in the past).
hachi8You could say that "You should have done it" = It is expected by the speaker that the other person does something in the past, but he/she [fails to / doesn't] do that (in the past).I'm sorry, but would that above mean I could ALSO say that~???No, not actually. I was just trying to explain what meaning "You should have done it" conveys. It's not p
LaboriousBy saying It would have been [advisible / a good idea / the right thing ] for you do it, aren't you suggesting that it wasn't, actually, advisible or a good idea or the right thing for you do it?No. It seems that way if you analyze it in a theoretical sense, but to my ear it doesn't work that way in this case. The suggestion is that something in t