Hello!
I've got a little problem with rules here:
The verb have can be used:
a. for possession ( have a car) Here, we should normally use the Present Perfect Simple
b. for action (have a drink)
According to Murphy's English Grammar in use, we can use continuous forms with expressions such as "have a holiday". Since it's not possession, why is the following sentence correct?
I haven't had a holiday for ages".
"I haven't been having a holiday for ages" it sounds wrong anyway, but why?
Thanks A LOT in advance!
" is simple present, not present perfect. And this is not a possessive form grammatically. " is imperative.
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"I have a car." is simple present, not present perfect. And this is not a possessive form grammatically. A possessive form, for example, would be: "That's my car."
"Have a drink." is imperative. There is no such thing as an "action form of a verb."
"Have a nice holiday." is imperative, not continuous.
"I haven't had a vacation in ages." is present perfect n
anonymousHello!
I've got a little problem with rules here:
The verb have can be used:
a. for possession ( have a car) Here, we should normally use the Present Perfect Simple
b. for action (have a drink)
You haven't said so, but in situation b. you can usually use the simple or the continuous, depending what you mea