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Ann225 Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

Prescriptive

When someone hasn't claimed their right to a property for a long time, is the period called 'prescriptive period'?

For instance, if somebody holds a property and the owner doesn't bring his claim within a year, the person becomes the owner 'by prescription'. It was used a lot in the Roman law.

Is that true?

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Top answer

" The laws differ by jurisdiction. Acquisition " by prescription" does not convey any title, only an easement. com/prescription

  • " The laws differ by jurisdiction.
  • Acquisition " by prescription" does not convey any title, only an easement.
  • com/prescription
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1 Answers
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Transfer of ownership relates to real property "acquisition by http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/adverse+possession."
The laws differ by jurisdiction.

Acquisition " by prescription" does not convey any title, only an easement.


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