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Anonymous Posted 15 years ago
Grammar
Prescription vs Description english
i was reading a grammar book until it says :
" Part 1 focuses on grammatical terminology used to describe language. Part 2 goes a step further by covering the rules and conventions --- the "prescriptions" for proper language, or what you should and should not do in formal communication. Rather than conflate these two issues ( description versus prescription), this book seperates them so readers... "
i still don't get the difference between these 2.
" Part 1 focuses on grammatical terminology used to describe language. Part 2 goes a step further by covering the rules and conventions --- the "prescriptions" for proper language, or what you should and should not do in formal communication. Rather than conflate these two issues ( description versus prescription), this book seperates them so readers... "
i still don't get the difference between these 2.
Top answer
Hi; Prescriptive grammarians make a set of rules and say that everyone has to follow the rules. The rules, once set, never change. For example, the "rule" of "no double negatives" was made by Robert Lowth, a prescriptive grammarian, in 1762, even though earlier great English writers (Shakespeare and Chaucer) had used double negatives for negative emphasis.
- Hi; Prescriptive grammarians make a set of rules and say that everyone has to follow the rules.
- The rules, once set, never change.
- For example, the "rule" of "no double negatives" was made by Robert Lowth, a prescriptive grammarian, in 1762, even though earlier great English writers (Shakespeare and Chaucer) had used double negatives for negative emphasis.
- Lowth just made a rule, put it in the grammar books, and that is what was taught.
- Descriptive grammarians, on the other hand, observe how educated people use the language, and write down these patterns as the "official grammar" at a point in time.
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2 Answers
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Hi;
Prescriptive grammarians make a set of rules and say that everyone has to follow the rules. The rules, once set, never change.
For example, the "rule" of "no double negatives" was made by Robert Lowth, a prescriptive grammarian, in 1762, even though earlier great English writers (Shakespeare and Chaucer) had used double negatives for negative emphasis. Lowth just made a rule, put
Prescriptive grammarians make a set of rules and say that everyone has to follow the rules. The rules, once set, never change.
For example, the "rule" of "no double negatives" was made by Robert Lowth, a prescriptive grammarian, in 1762, even though earlier great English writers (Shakespeare and Chaucer) had used double negatives for negative emphasis. Lowth just made a rule, put
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interesting! but what if i don't follow the prescription, like the double negative? would it be wrong or just refrained? if you could give some examples
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